What really didn't make sense to me was that, even if the "Lord" in the II Peter 2 passage refers to the Father, that doesn't change the essence of the passage. Seems like a nitpicky point to bring up.
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What really didn't make sense to me was that, even if the "Lord" in the II Peter 2 passage refers to the Father, that doesn't change the essence of the passage. Seems like a nitpicky point to bring up.
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